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Sep 6th, 2012 - anitabsmith 1 

what would be the CPT® code for the following question?

After satisfactory level of general anesthesia was reached and patient was placed in the supine position, the extremity was prepped and draped. At this setting, we could translationally displace this fracture in a manner as to correct valgus and rotational anomaly. She remained somewhat subtly foreshortened and translationally opposed by about 1-2 mm (millimeter). At this setting, I accepted this as an acceptable reduction without opening the skin. We proceeded with the advancement of a single .054 intramedullary pin.

AP (anterior posterior), lateral, and oblique views at this time were confirmatory for restoration of alignment as noted fluoroscopically. The patient was then sandwich splint immobilized with ulnar gutter splint and transferred to the recovery room in a stable manner without complication or compromising events.

Sep 6th, 2012 - nmaguire   2,606 

re: what would be the CPT® code for the following question?

What is the diagnosis and AP/Lateral of what?



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