Forum - Questions & Answers

May 10th, 2010 - ASTOUGH 15 

Atrophic vaginitis

What ICD-9 code shoud I use for a patient that has atrophic vaginitis but is NOT menopausal or post menopausal?

May 10th, 2010 - nmaguire   2,606 

Cause

What is the cause? The most common cause of vaginal atrophy is the decrease in estrogen which happens naturally during perimenopause, and increasingly so in post-menopause. However this condition can sometimes be caused by other circumstances.

May 10th, 2010 -

how about

616.11? That will get your claim paid- if the insurer really wants to know the type they can request records.

May 11th, 2010 - ASTOUGH 15 

Thanks

That will work! Thank you!

May 11th, 2010 - ASTOUGH 15 

She is not menopausal.

She has lack of estrogen related to birth control and extreme weight loss.

May 11th, 2010 - nmaguire   2,606 

vaginitis

Look also at codes 256.39 , 616.11 with an E code for adverse effect of a drug (birth control). Code also the weight loss. Code 616.11 cannot be primary diagnosis code.

May 12th, 2010 -

why not?

what's wrong with 616.11?

May 12th, 2010 - nmaguire   2,606 

616.11

It is in "Italics", any code in italics cannot be # 1 code. You have to code first the underlying condition. "Code first underlying condition". Code 616.11 must be a secondary code.

May 12th, 2010 -

out of curiosity

What about 623.8?



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