4011 vs 4019

Can anyone tell me which is more appropriate and how does this need to be documented to use the 4011 instead of the unspecified 4019 which payors do not like. We are also checking with the MD but wnated other thoughts.

Htn

The most appropriate is what is documented. Benign (401.1) must be stated. Code 401.9 (unspecified) is saying the patient has hypertension, not specified as benign or malignant (401.0). If documentation does not support "benign" or "malignant", the 401.9 is accurate code to assign.

but check this out--ICD-10

Guess what though, the payers can't be choicy with ICD-10 because there will be only one ICD-10 code, namely I10, and that code crosswalks to represent 401.0 401.1 and 401.9.

ICD-10 - tell me I'm not dreaming!

[Guess what though, the payers can't be choicy with ICD-10 because there will be only one ICD-10 code, namely I10, and that code crosswalks to represent 401.0 401.1 and 401.9. ]

How dare they simplify things!!!!! Make three codes into one? That makes way too much sense to be true.

Htn

No hypertension table - ICD-10, no code difference in Benign, Malignant, unspec.
Hypertension no longer classified using those terms; hypertension does not use type as defining classification. Don't worry there are other ICD-1- codes that will drive you crazy on the detail required.